blogblog: TOEIC

Structure and Content

Of the four major language skill areas (listening comprehension, reading comprehension, speaking, and writing), TOEIC only evaluates two: reading and listening comprehension.

*Section*	*Parts*	*Númber of Questions*	*Time*
Listening Comprehension	Scene-sentence matching	10	45 minutes (100 questions)
	Questions-Response	30
	Short Conversations	30
	Short Talks	30
Reading Comprehension	Sentence Completion	40	75 minutes (100 questions)
	Text Completion	12
	Comprehension Textos	48

Struktur dan Konten

Dari empat bidang keterampilan bahasa utama (mendengarkan pemahaman, pemahaman bacaan, berbicara, dan menulis), TOEIC hanya mengevaluasi dua: membaca dan mendengarkan pemahaman.

LISTENING TEST

In the Listening test, you will be asked to demonstrate how well you understand spoken English.

The entire Listening test will last approximately 45 minutes. There are four parts, and directions are given for each part. You must mark your answers on the separate answer sheet. Do not write your answers in the test book.

MENDENGARKAN TES

Pada uji Mendengarkan, Anda akan diminta untuk menunjukkan seberapa baik Anda memahami bahasa Inggris lisan.

Seluruh tes Listening akan berlangsung sekitar 45 menit. Ada empat bagian, dan arah yang diberikan untuk setiap bagian. Anda harus menandai jawaban Anda pada jawaban yang terpisah sheet. Jangan menulis jawaban Anda dalam buku uji.

Directions: You will hear some conversations between two people.

You will be asked to answer three questions about what the speakers say in each conversation. Select the best response to each question and mark the letter (A), (B), (C), or (D) on your answer sheet.

The conversations will be spoken only one time and will not be printed in your test book.

Arah: Anda akan mendengar beberapa percakapan antara dua orang.
Anda akan diminta untuk menjawab tiga pertanyaan tentang apa speaker mengatakan dalam setiap percakapan. Pilih jawaban terbaik untuk setiap pertanyaan dan menandai huruf (A), (B), (C), atau (D) pada lembar jawaban Anda.
Percakapan akan diucapkan hanya satu kali dan tidak akan dicetak dalam buku tes Anda.

41. What are the speakers discussing?

(A) Their homes

(B) Their jobs

(D) Their favorite cities

42. What does the man want to do?

(A) Get a new job

(B) Visit another city

(D) Move to the country

43. What can be inferred about the woman?

(A) Her house is very small.

(B) She thinks the city is exciting.

(D) She lives outside the city.

Now click on the audio icon below to hear each question (3 in all).

Then choose your response from the choices given below each audio clip.

READING TEST

In the Reading test, you will read a variety of texts and answer several different types of reading comprehension questions. The entire Reading test will last 75 minutes. There are three parts, and directions are given for each part.

You are encouraged to answer as many questions as possible within the time allowed. You must mark your answers on the separate answer sheet. Do not write your answers in the test book.

BACAAN TES

Pada uji Reading, Anda akan membaca berbagai teks dan menjawab beberapa berbagai jenis pertanyaan pemahaman bacaan. Seluruh tes Reading akan berlangsung 75 menit. Ada tiga bagian, dan petunjuk yang diberikan untuk setiap bagian.
Anda dianjurkan untuk menjawab pertanyaan sebanyak mungkin dalam waktu yang diizinkan. Anda harus menandai jawaban Anda pada lembar jawaban yang terpisah. Jangan menulis Anda jawaban dalam buku uji.

PART 5

Directions: A word or phrase is missing in each of the sentences below.

Four answer choices are given below each sentence. Select the best answer to complete the sentence. Then mark the letter (A), (B), (C), or (D) on your answer sheet.

PART 5

Arah: Sebuah kata atau frase yang hilang di masing-masing kalimat di bawah ini.
Empat pilihan jawaban yang diberikan di bawah setiap kalimat. Pilih yang terbaik menjawab untuk menyelesaikan kalimat. Kemudian menandai huruf (A), (B), (C), atau (D) pada lembar jawaban Anda.

101. Register early if you would like to attend next Tuesday’s ------- on project management.

(A) seminar

(B) reason

(D) scene

102. Paul Brown resigned last Monday from his position as ------- executive of the company.

(A) fine

(B) chief

(D) large

103. The financial audit of Soft Peach Software ------- completed on Wednesday by a certified accounting firm.

(A) to be

(B) having been

(D) were

104. The organizers of the trip reminded participants to ------- at the steps of the city hall at 2:00 P.M.

(A) see

(B) combine

(D) go

105. ------- is no better season than winter to begin training at Silver’s Fitness Center.

(A) When

(B) It

(D) As it

106. The recent worldwide increase in oil prices has led to a ------- demand for electric vehicles.

(A) greater

(B) greatest

(D) greatness

107. Maria Vásquez has a wide range of experience, ------- worked in technical, production, and marketing positions.

(A) having
(B) has
(C) having had
(D) had

108. Tickets will not be redeemable for cash or credit at any time, ------- will they be replaced if lost or stolen.

(A) but
(B) though
(C) only
(D) nor

TOEIC TEST: Structure and Written Expression

1	Mr. Bishop will return your call _____ he returns.
		as soon
		as soon as
		soon as
		soon


2	There is a message _____ the general manager's answering machine.
		to
		in
		on
		of


3	The new regulations are _____ the old ones.
		complicated as
		complicated than
		more complicated
		more complicated than


4	The promotional campaign, _____ will be announced today, should be very successful.
		which
		when
		while
		it


5	Mr. Haig _____ for appointments.
		always punctual
		punctual always
		is always punctual
		always punctual is